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If all
men have free will is the sinner as free as the saint?
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If all
sinners possess will and power to come to Christ, why did Christ say, “No
man can come unto Me except the Father which hath sent Me draw him?” (John
6:44)
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Has any
man the power to refuse to come to Christ when the Father draws him?
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Have
those people free will that shall do wickedly and none of them shall understand?
(Daniel 12:10)
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Have those
people free will of whom Peter says, they “were made to be taken and
destroyed, and should utterly perish”? (2 Peter 2:12)
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Have those
people free will “who were before of old ordained to this condemnation”?
(Jude 4)
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Have those
people free will of whom Jesus says, “the dead shall hear, and they that
hear shall live”? (John 5:25)
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Have those
people free will of whom God says “I will be to them a God and they shall
be to Me a people; and they shall not teach every man his neighbour and
every man his brother, saying know the Lord”? (Hebrews 8:10-11)
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Could not a
man with free will believe, notwithstanding Jesus said, “I work a work in
your days, a work which ye shall in no wise believe, though a man declare
it unto you”? (Acts 13:41)
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Does not the
doctrine of free will make man the cause of his own salvation?
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Can man have
free will and God be sovereign?
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Is any one
free that is a servant?
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Are not all
men the servants of sin until they are made free by the Son? (John
8:34-36)
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Is the sinner
free to will, free to choose, free to love, free to become a Christian,
or, free to let it all alone?
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If we are
saved by our free will, is it not a fact that the only difference between
the saved and the lost is that the saved made a better use of their will?
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If God only
wills to save those that are willing to be saved, is not God’s will
dependent upon man’s will?
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Does God work
all things after the counsel of His own will, or does He work some things
after the will of the sinner? (Ephesians 1:11)
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Is the
unchangeable God, changed by the will of the sinner? (Malachi 3:6)
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Does
salvation or damnation depend upon the use that a man makes of his will?
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Does a sinner
have the will to do God’s will prior to being born again? If so, is his
will changed in the spiritual birth?
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Does God
begin the work of grace in the sinner independently, or is the sinner’s
will first consulted?
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Does Christ
have to get the consent of the sinner before He can save him?
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Does the
sinner have to accept Christ in order to be saved, and reject Him to be
lost? If so, is not Christ limited in the work of salvation to what the
sinner sees fit to do?
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Is belief a
condition of salvation, or is it an evidence of salvation?
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Do we have to
believe in order to be saved or is the believer already in possession of
eternal life?
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Does Christ
save sinners or do sinners save themselves? Is salvation a partnership
work?
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If sinners
are saved other than by grace alone, please cite the chapter and verse
which says so?
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If God
purposed to save all men and God changes not, will not all be saved? If
not, why not?
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If God works
all things after the counsel of His own will, was it His will to save
those that will not be saved? (Ephesians 1:11)
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If Christ
came to save sinners and did not do it, is not Christ a failure? (1
Timothy 1:15)
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If Christ is
a failure, upon what does the Christian’s hope depend?
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If grace is
favour bestowed upon an unworthy object, does not grace stop where
worthiness begins?
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When a sinner
is quickened by the spirit, is he not in possession of eternal life?
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Is there any
intermediate space between life and death?
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Do we have to
act in order to live, or does life always precede action?
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Did Christ
come to seek and to save sinners, or to save those that seek Him? (Luke
19:10)
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If sinners
have to seek God in order to be saved, and none seek Him, will any be
saved? (Romans 3:11)
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Does not the
saving of sinners come before the calling, and does not God do both? Are
we either saved or called according to our works? (2 Timothy 1:9)
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If God saves
sinners according to His own purpose (2 Timothy 1:9), is not the plan of
salvation as old as God’s purpose?
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If Christ
came to save sinners (1 Timothy 1:15), and finished the work (John 19:30),
what is left for sinners to do in the work of salvation?
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Were the
different gifts given for the salvation of sinners, or for the edifying of
the body of Christ? (Ephesians 4:11-12)
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Could there
be an effect without a cause?
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Is the first
cause of salvation the work of God, or the work of the sinner?
(Philippians 1:6)
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Do good works
produce the Spirit, or does the Spirit produce good works?
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If Christ
only made salvation possible and the sinner makes it sure by his acts,
which deserves the more praise?